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Author Message
Ric Vitiello (Ricvitiello)
Posted on Sunday, February 18, 2001 - 2:29 pm:   

Hi Jay,
Let's take it word by word. I'm assuming that when you say "they had a sump" that you mean they had a sump PUMP. having a sump hole without a pump in it would not be a complete system "designed to carry water away from the dwelling". The same would be true for a 1" channel around the perimeter. Without a sump pump or some type of drainage system, the channel would not be a system to carry water away but would simply be a system designed to "collect" water. the key words are"to carry water AWAY"

Ric Vitiello
Cecelia Sharpe (Cecelia)
Posted on Saturday, February 17, 2001 - 5:37 pm:   

My understanding of the sewer and drain endorsement is that if a system designed to drain water away from the home fails (perhaps an electric sump shorts out from the water) or is "overburdened" and is unable to perform due to the amount of water backing up (not coming in from the walls, but backing up through a drain) there is coverage. There are times when the carrier will define a channel, if it is designed to drain water away from the dwelling, as a drainage system that is "overburdened". The carrier then extends coverage.
Don Politte (Donp)
Posted on Thursday, February 15, 2001 - 7:34 pm:   

To have coverage you must have a drain, not just a channel along the perimater of the wall. It must drain into something, otherwise you would just have a slab with a 1" low spot in it. Therefore in my opinion you would not have coverage, unless the water came from some source, other than surface water run off or hydrostatic water pressure, even then this would have to be a covered peril.
Jay Ennis (Jennis)
Posted on Thursday, February 15, 2001 - 12:24 am:   

I had a loss that involved a HO-3 policy which had a Sewer and Drain Endorsement. The water damage was in the basement. They had a sump. The floor of the basement was what I call a floating slab, around the edge of the slab was a 1" channel that ended at the sump. I recommended payment based on the fact that the water appeared to come from the sump. However, the question I have is what if there had not been a sump would the 1" channel be considered a drain allowing me to pay for the water damage. Since channel appeared to be a system designed to remove subsurface water I'm inclined to afford coverage.

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